Hi guys, have set something up which i think should work but isn't so I thought I'd throw it out here to see if anyone can help me. Here's what I've got: Router 1 WAN port: External/Internet IP Address LAN port: 10.0.0.1 DHCP disabled Router 2 WAN port: 10.0.0.2 (configured manually) LAN port 192.168.1.2 Basically, router 2 has a remote management thing which allows it to be accessed from the WAN side and is currently set to port 80, so on router 1 i created a rule to forward port 3877 on the WAN side to port 80 on 10.0.0.2 thinking that if i then go to external ip address:3877 in a web browser it would allow me to see the web management of router 2, but it doesn't?! Can anybody help me out here please, am I right in thinking this should work? As I said, the WAN port on router 2 is configured manually to be 10.0.0.2 and I have a static ip assignment on router 1 for the wan mac address of router 2 as 10.0.0.2 also (had to do this on router 1 before it would let me port forward.) The two routers are definitely talking okay as I have pcs on the 192.168.1.x network which can access internet.

So basically Router2 is connected to Router1 ? Internet>Router1>Router2 If that is the case then you have to tunnel thru Router1 to access Router2 !!

yes, thats it. Thats what I thought I had done though by forwarding the port on router 1 through to the wan side of router 2??