Overclock unstable without 1:1?

January 14, 2010 at 20:40:45
Specs: Vista Premium 32bit, E6850/2x1GB RAM
The 1:1 ratio between the fsb:ram speed that is.

I'll start with the specs:

CPU: E6850 3.6GHZ, MOBO: gigabyte GA-P35-DS3R rev 1.0, RAM: 1066MHZ DDR2.

Recently up until my PC2-6400 ram died I've been running a stable overclock of 3.6ghz on my E6850. FSB and ram both at 400 (1:1 ratio). The overclock was stable and all was well.

My ram just died however and I'm thinking of upgrading to 1066 DDR2 (I've found some good 5-5-5-15 stuff for cheap). What I'm wondering is - is this a good idea? I plan on running the ram at 1066 and not underclocking it - I'll be keeping the cpu at 3.6. I've heard time and again to keep the fsb/ram at 1:1 or it's possible to run into stability issues.

I'm wondering how much of a chance there is this will affect my overclock? Do you think I should just stick with the 800mhz ram? If it's at all possible that it'll mess up my overclock I'm not sure I'd want to upgrade. Basically, I'm just being very indecisive and I'm looking for some thoughts.

Any input is appreciated. Thanks.

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January 14, 2010 at 22:17:56
If u plan to overclock cpu(pump fsb 533) then go ahead and buy ddr2 1066 but if u want keep your fsb 400 then stick with ddr2 800, it's very important to maintain ratio 1:1 in c2d cpu.

edit: if u buy ddr2 1066 u need to underclock it, if u don't underclock it(ddr2 800) u will get performance hit.

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January 17, 2010 at 05:22:36
Thanks for the reply. I think I'll stick with the PC6400 and try to find 3-3-3-8 pair somewhere.

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